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Study Question: What is the true incidence of chromosomal mosaicism in embryos analyzed by preimplantation genetic testing (PGT).Summary Answer: The true incidence of chromosomal mosaicism is much lower than we usually surmise.What Is Known Already: In recent years, contemporary methods for chromosome analysis, along with the biopsy of more than one cell, have given rise to an increased rate of chromosomal mosaicism detection after preimplantation genetic testing for aneuploidy. However, the exorbitant incidence of mosaicism represents a dilemma and imposes restrictions on the application of PGT treatment. Concern has been raised about the possibility that the incidence of chromosomal mosaicism is overestimated and quite a few of the results are false-positive errors. However, studies verifying the diagnosis of chromosomal mosaicism and assessing the true incidence of chromosomal mosaicism are limited.Study Design, Size, Duration: A total of 1719 blastocysts from 380 patients who underwent PGT treatment were retrospectively analyzed to evaluate the typical incidence of mosaicism. Then 101 embryos donated by 70 couples were re-biopsied and dissected into three portions if available: trophectoderm (TE), inner cell mass (ICM), and the remaining portions. All the portions were tested using next-generation sequencing (NGS), and the results were compared to the original diagnosis.Participants/materials, Setting, Methods: The setting for this study was a university-affiliated center with an in-house PGT laboratory. All samples were amplified with multiple annealing and looping-based amplification cycles (MALBACs) and the NGS was carried out on a Life Technologies Ion Proton platform.Main Results and the Role Of Chance: A clinical TE biopsy revealed an incidence of 11.9% for diploid-aneuploid mosaicism (DAM), 17.3% for aneuploid mosaicism (AM) and 29.1% in total. After rebiopsy, 94.1% whole-chromosome aneuploidies and 82.8% segmental-chromosome aneuploidies were confirmed in the embryos. As for the mosaic errors, only 32 (31.7%) out of 101 embryos presented with uniform chromosomal aberrations in agreement with the original biopsy results, 15 (14.8%) embryos presented with de novo chromosomal aberrations, and 54 (53.5%) embryos showed a euploid profile in all portions. Among the 32 uniform embryos, the true mosaicism was confirmed in only 4 cases, where a reciprocal chromosomal aberration was identified; 14 embryos presented with identical mosaicism, providing the moderate evidence for true mosaicism; and 14 embryos displayed uniform full aneuploidies in all portions of embryo, revealing a high-grade mosaicism or a false-negative diagnosis. Logistical regression analysis revealed that the concordance rate with ICM was associated with the type and level of mosaicism. The concordance rate of segmental-chromosome mosaicism was significantly lower than whole-chromosome mosaicism (adjusted Odds Ratio (aOR): 5.137 (1.061, 24.876), P = 0.042) and compared to DAM, the concordance rate of AM was significantly higher (aOR: 6.546 (1.354, 31.655), P = 0.019). The concordance rate also increased with increasing levels of mosaicism (P < 0.001).Limitations, Reasons For Caution: This study was limited by a small sample size and the use of a single whole-genome amplification (WGA) method and NGS platform. These findings are only applicable to samples subjected to MALBAC amplification and Ion Proton platform, and studies involving larger sample sizes and multiple WGA methods and NGS platforms are required to prove our findings.Wider Implications Of the Findings: TE biopsy is reliable to detect whole-chromosome aneuploidies, but the ability to diagnose mosaicism is doubtful. More attention should be paid to false-positive and false-negative errors in NGS-based PGT, especially for laboratories using less stringent criteria for mosaicism classification (i.e. 20-80%), which might be subject to a much higher false-positive mosaicism rate in the practice.Study Funding/competing Interest(s): This study was supported by grants from the National Key R&D Program of China (No. 2016YFC1000206-5) and the National Natural Science Foundation of China (No. 81701509).Trial Registration Number: N/A. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Introduction: he prevalence of frailty defined by FRAIL-NH varies among different studies in nursing homes, ranging from 19.0% to 75.6%. This study investigated the prevalence of frailty in a nursing home in Taiwan using different diagnostic criteria for frailty. Methods: The 7-item FRAIL-NH scale was used for assessing frailty. There are 7 components: fatigue, resistance, mobility, incontinence or disease, weight loss, eating style and assistance with dressing. Each item is worth 0, 1, or 2 points for a total score of 14 points. We sorted and summarized the patients, according to the number of variables, into the not frail, frail, and most frail groups. Descriptive analysis was applied to understand the basic attributes of the elderly with different degrees of frailty, the influencing factors of frailty, and the occurrence of frailty. Results: Our final sample included 34 residents. They were aged between 56 and 100 years (mean age 83.91 ± 10.84), and 18 (52.94%) were female. The frail group revealed a higher prevalence of males than of females. The marital status composition of participants was as follows: 2 (5.88%) unmarried, 24 (70.59%) married, and 8 (23.53%) widowed. The mean FRAIL-NH score was 5.79±3.72. Conclusions: A significant prevalence of frailty defined by FRAIL-NH was observed in a nursing home in Taiwan. Our findings indicate that frailty is an important issue in nursing homes. Further prospective cohort studies using FRAIL-NH evaluation are warranted. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Background: Automated external defibrillators (AEDs) are critical in the chain of survival following out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OHCA), yet few studies have reported on AED use and outcomes among pediatric OHCA. This study describes the association between bystander AED use, neighborhood characteristics and survival outcomes following public pediatric OHCA.Methods: Non-traumatic OHCAs among children less than18 years of age in a public setting between from January 1, 2013 through December 31, 2017 were identified in the CARES database. A neighborhood characteristic index was created from the addition of dichotomous values of 4 American Community Survey neighborhood characteristics at the Census tract level: median household income, percent high school graduates, percent unemployment, and percent African American. Multivariable logistic regression models assessed the association of OHCA characteristics, the neighborhood characteristic index and outcomes.Results: Of 971 pediatric OHCA, AEDs were used by bystanders in 10.3% of OHCAs. AEDs were used on 2.3% of children ≤1 year (infants), 8.3% of 2-5 year-olds, 12.4% of 6-11 year-olds, and 18.2% of 12-18 year-olds (p < 0.001). AED use was more common in neighborhoods with a median household income of >$50,000 per year (12.3%; p = 0.016), <10% unemployment (12.1%; p = 0.002), and >80% high school education (11.8%; p = 0.002). Greater survival to hospital discharge and neurologically favorable survival were among arrests with bystander AED use, varying by neighborhood characteristics.Conclusions: Bystander AED use is uncommon in pediatric OHCA, particularly in high-risk neighborhoods, but improves survival. Further study is needed to understand disparities in AED use and outcomes. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Objective: To assess the diagnostic performance of a novel circulating single molecule amplification and re-sequencing technology (cSMART) method for noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT) of Phenylketonuria (PKU).Design: Blinded NIPT analysis of pregnancies at high risk for PKU.Setting: Shanghai Xinhua Hospital and Hunan Jiahui Genetics Hospital, China.Population: Couples (n = 33) with a child diagnosed with PKU.Methods: Trio testing for pathogenic PAH mutations was performed by Sanger sequencing. In second pregnancies, invasive prenatal diagnosis (IPD) was used to determine fetal genotypes. NIPT was performed using a PAH gene-specific cSMART assay. Based on the plasma DNA mutation ratio relative to the fetal DNA fraction, fetal genotypes were assigned using a maximum-likelihood algorithm.Main Outcome Measures: Concordance of fetal genotyping results between IPD and NIPT, and the sensitivity and specificity of the NIPT assay.Results: Compared with gold standard IPD results, 32 of 33 fetuses (96.97%) were accurately genotyped by NIPT. The sensitivity and specificity of the NIPT assay was 100.00% (95% CI 59.04-100.00%) and 96.15% (95% CI 80.36-99.90%), respectively.Conclusions: The novel cSMART assay demonstrated high accuracy for correctly calling fetal genotypes. We propose that this test has useful clinical utility for the rapid screening of high-risk and low-risk pregnancies with a known history of PKU on one or both sides of the family.Tweetable Abstract: NIPT of couples at high risk for PKU using a full-coverage cSMART PAH gene test. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

The aim of this study was to perform a systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials ( RCTs) or cohort studies that evaluated the effect of aerobic endurance exercise on pulse wave velocity ( PWV) and intima media thickness ( IMT) in adults. IMT and PWV were the most commonly used parameters for the assessment of arterial stiffness. The MEDLINE, Cochrane, ISI, and Ovid databases were searched between January 2000 and February 2015. A total of 1654 participants in 26 RCTs and two cohort studies were included in the meta-analysis. In studies for which PWV was the outcome, aerobic endurance exercise had a significant effect on reducing PWV [−0.67, 95% CI −0.97, −0.38; I2 = 89%; heterogeneity, P < 0.0001]. Changes in peripheral arterial PWV were statistically greater than in central arterial PWV. In the RCTs for which IMT was the outcome, changes [−0.04, 95% CI −0.12, 0.04; I2 = 95%; heterogeneity, P < 0.00001] in IMT did not reach statistical significance. In the two cohort studies, changes [−8.81, 95% CI −9.25, −8.37; I2 = 22%; heterogeneity, P = 0.26] in IMT were statistically significant. Subgroup analysis indicated a longer duration aerobic exercise and a greater improvement in VO2max were associated with larger reductions in PWV. Reductions in IMT were observed in two cohort studies, but not in four RCTs. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Aim: To investigate the feasibility of T2* relaxation time for distinguishing benign from malignant regions, as well as tumour aggressiveness, within the peripheral zone (PZ) of the prostate in comparison with diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI).Materials and Methods: Fifty-eight patients with prostate cancer underwent 3 T magnetic resonance imaging using multi-echo T2* and DWI (maximum b-value, 2000 s/mm(2)). Parametric maps were obtained for apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) and T2* values. Two radiologists reviewed these maps and measured ADC and T2* values in sextants positive for cancer at biopsy. Data were analysed using mixed-model analysis of variance and receiver operating characteristic curves.Results: Ninety-three sextants exhibited a Gleason score of 6; 59 exhibited a Gleason score of 7 or 8. The T2* value was significantly lower in cancerous sextants than in the benign PZ (48.69+0.60 versus 74.14+0.56, p<0.001), as well as in cancerous sextants with higher rather than lower Gleason scores (43.18+0.89 versus 52.18+0.55, p<0.001). The T2* value showed significantly greater specificity for differentiating cancerous sextants from benign PZ than ADC (93.1% versus 89.7%, p<0.001), with equal sensitivity (82.8% versus 81%, p>0.05). The T2* value exhibited significantly greater sensitivity and specificity for differentiating sextants with low- and high-grade cancer than ADC (79.6% versus 64.5% and 81.4% versus 72.9%, respectively; p<0.05). The T2* value had a significantly greater area under the receiver operating characteristic curve for differentiating sextants with low- and high-grade cancer than ADC (0.77 versus 0.71, p<0.01).Conclusion: Preliminary findings suggest that the T2* relaxation time has increased diagnostic value compared with DWI in prostate PZ cancer assessment. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

OBJECTIVES: Candida-associated denture stomatitis is a recurrent and debilitating oral mucosal disease. Development of anticandidal denture materials represents a promising strategy to manage this condition. We have previously shown that miconazole incorporated in methacrylic acid (MAA) copolymerized diurethane dimethacrylate (UDMA) denture materials has longterm anticandidal activity. In this study, we examined the ability of culture medium conditioned with drug-free- or miconazole-MAA-UDMA discs to prevent Candida infection in an in vitro oral epithelial cell/Candida albicans coculture system. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Candida albicans (C. albicans)-induced OKF6/TERT-2 cell damage was quantified by the release of lactate dehydrogenase from epithelial cells, cytokine production was quantified using protein cytokine arrays, and the expression of C. albicans genes was measured by RT-qPCR. RESULTS: Candida albicans had limited growth with altered expression levels of secreted aspartyl proteinase-2 and -5 in culture medium conditioned by miconazole-MAA-UDMA discs. Significantly, the ability of C. albicans to induce oral epithelial cell damage and trigger epithelial proinflammatory cytokine production was also inhibited by miconazole disc conditioned media. CONCLUSION: Miconazole released from MAA-UDMA denture materials effectively prevents the development of candidal infection in an in vitro oral epithelial system. Further characterization of this drug-rechargeable denture material is warranted. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Context The Ten Questions tool was developed in 1984 as a low-cost, simple screen for childhood disability and referral for diagnosis in low-resource settings, and its use in Nepal has not been previously evaluated. Preterm birth and intrauterine growth restriction are potential risk factors for child disability and loss of developmental potential, but there are few studies examining this relationship from developing settings. Objective To examine the associations of small for gestational age and preterm birth as predictors of Ten Questions Plus positivity. Design, setting and participants The Ten Questions Plus questionnaire was administered to caregivers of 680 children between 2 and 5 years of age from August 2007 to March 2008 in rural Sarlahi, southern Nepal. Participants had previously been enrolled in a randomized trial of chlorhexidine cleansing at birth. At 1 month of age, children were then enrolled into a randomized 2 × 2 factorial trial of daily iron and zinc supplementation between October 2001 and January 2006. Intervention None. Main outcome measure Positive screen on the Ten Questions Plus tool defined as a positive response to one or more questions. Results Of preterm children, 37 (33.6%) had a positive response to at least one question on the Ten Questions Plus and were considered at risk for disability. One hundred and seventy term children (29.8%) were at risk for disability. Conclusions The Ten Questions Plus tool can be used in this rural Nepali setting to identify children at increased risk for mental and physical disability to be targeted for further examination. The prevalence of parent-reported disabilities is high in this population (almost one-third of children); children who are both preterm and small-for-gestational age are at increased risk for motor milestone delay, reported learning difficulty, speech and behavioural problems. Intrauterine growth restriction may affect child development and result in disabilities later in childhood. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Oral Diseases (2011) , 283-290 S100A2, a Ca-binding protein with two EF-hands, is a tumor suppressor in oral cancer. Helix III flanking the C-terminal EF-hand is implicated to participate in the interaction of S100A2 and its target(s). The aim of this study was to examine if the coding sequence polymorphism S100A2_185G>A, leading to the peptide 62 substitution of asparagine (AAC, A allele) for serine (AGC, G allele) in helix III, had modulation effects on S100A-mediated tumor suppression. We sequenced the coding sequence of S100A2 gene in normal oral keratinocytes (NOKs), dysplastic oral keratinocytes (DOKs), eight oral cancer lines, and 54 pairwise oral cancer specimens. We also compared the in vitro anti-tumor effect of wildtype (G allele) and variant (A allele) S100A2 expression using cell proliferation, migration, invasion, and colony formation assays. With the exception of CAL27 and SCC-15 cancer lines being heterozygotes of A and G alleles, the remaining oral cells were homozygotic in G alleles. No alterations of anti-growth, anti-migration, anti-invasion, and anti-colony formation were observed between variant and wildtype cells. Moreover, no minor S100A2_185A allele was detected in 54-pairwise clinical specimens. The coding sequence polymorphism S100A2_185G>A had no regulatory role in S100A2-mediated tumor suppression in oral cancer. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Background: The deprivation gap for breast cancer survival remains unexplained by stage at presentation, treatment, or co-morbidities. We hypothesised that p53 mutation might contribute to the impaired outcome observed in patients from deprived communities.Methods: p53 mutation status was determined using the Roche Amplichip research test in 246 women with primary breast cancer attending a single cancer centre and related to deprivation, pathology, overall, and disease-free survival.Results: p53 mutation, identified in 64/246 (26%) of cancers, was most common in 10 out of 17 (58.8%) of the lowest (10th) deprivation decile. Those patients with p53 mutation in the 10th decile had a significantly worse disease-free survival of only 20% at 5 years (Kaplan-Meier logrank chi(2)=6.050, P=0.014) and worse overall survival of 24% at 5 years (Kaplan-Meier logrank chi(2)=6.791, P=0.009) than women of deciles 1-9 with p53 mutation (c.f. 56% and 72%, respectively) or patients in the 10th decile with wild-type p53 (no disease relapse or deaths).Conclusion: p53 mutation in breast cancer is associated with socio-economic deprivation and may provide a molecular basis, with therapeutic implications, for the poorer outcome in women from deprived communities. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Bystander effects induced by cytoplasmic irradiation have been reported recently. However, the mechanism(s) underlying, such as the functional role of mitochondria, is not clear. In the present study, we used either mtDNA-depleted (rho(0)) A(L) or normal (rho(+)) A(L) cells as irradiated donor cells and normal human skin fibroblasts as receptor cells in a series of medium transfer experiments to investigate the mitochondria-related signal process. Our results indicated that mtDNA-depleted cells or normal A(L) cells treated with mitochondrial respiratory chain function inhibitors had an attenuated gamma-H2AX induction, which indicates that mitochondria play a functional role in bystander effects. Moreover, it was found that treatment of normal A(L) donor cells with specific inhibitors of NOS, or inhibitor of mitochondrial calcium uptake (ruthenium red) significantly decreased gamma-H2AX induction and that radiation could stimulate cellular NO and O(2)(*-) production in irradiated rho(+) A(L) cells, but not in rho(0) A(L) cells. These observations, together with the findings that ruthenium red treatment significantly reduced the NO and O(2)(*-) levels in irradiated rho(+) A(L) cells, suggest that radiation-induced NO derived from mitochondria might be an intracellular bystander factor and calcium-dependent mitochondrial NOS might play an essential role in the process. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

The aim of the present work is to develop 3D finite element models of implant fixture with different wall thicknesses to predict maximum stress concentration sites and distribution contours after loading. A maximum lateral force of 150 N was applied to simulate horizontal occlusal forces. When the fixtures were constrained to simulate different boundary levels, the maximum equivalent stress (max EQV) was always located at the implant-bone interface. Max EQV increased when the wall thickness or boundary level was reduced to a certain extent. The fixture with a wall thickness of 0.97 mm demonstrated the smallest stress increase ratio when the boundary level was lowered. Our results indicated that both wall thickness and the boundary level played important roles in maintaining a well-distributed stress level within the fixture. The stress concentration decreased when the fixture wall became thicker, however, this effect was less significant when the surrounding bone level was reduced. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Background: High-risk human papillomaviruses (HPVs) are etiologic agents for anogenital tract cancers and have been detected in head and neck squamous cell carcinomas (HNSCCs). We investigated, retrospectively, an etiologic role for HPVs in a large series of patients with HNSCC.Methods: Tumor tissues from 253 patients with newly diagnosed or recurrent HNSCC were tested for the presence of HPV genome by use of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based assays, Southern blot hybridization, and in situ hybridization. The viral E6 coding region was sequenced to confirm the presence of tumor-specific viral isolates. Exons 5-9 of the TP53 gene were sequenced from 166 specimens. The hazard of death from HNSCC in patients with and without HPV-positive tumors was determined by proportional hazards regression analysis.Results: HPV was detected in 62 (25%) of 253 cases (95% confidence interval [CI] = 19%-30%). High-risk, tumorigenic type HPV16 was identified in 90% of the HPV-positive tumors. HPV16 was localized specifically by in situ hybridization within the nuclei of cancer cells in preinvasive, invasive, and lymph node disease. Southern blot hybridization patterns were consistent with viral integration. Poor tumor grade (odds ratio [OR] = 2.4; 95% CI = 1.2- 4.9) and oropharyngeal site (OR = 6.2; 95% CI = 3.1-12.1) independently increased the probability of HPV presence. As compared with HPV-negative oropharyngeal cancers, HPV-positive oropharyngeal cancers were less likely to occur among moderate to heavy drinkers (OR = 0.17; 95% CI = 0.05-0.61) and smokers (OR = 0.16; 95% CI = 0.02-1.4), had a characteristic basaloid morphology (OR = 18.7; 95% CI = 2.1-167), were less likely to have TP53 mutations (OR = 0.06; 95% CI = 0.01-0. 36), and had improved disease-specific survival (hazard ratio [HR] = 0.26; 95% CI = 0.07-0.98). After adjustment for the presence of lymph node disease (HR = 2.3; 95% CI = 1.4- 3.8), heavy alcohol consumption (HR = 2.6; 95% CI = 1.4-4.7), and age greater than 60 years old (HR = 1.4; 95% CI = 0.8-2.3), all patients with HPV-positive tumors had a 59% reduction in risk of death from cancer when compared with HPV-negative HNSCC patients (HR = 0.41; 95% CI = 0.20-0.88).Conclusions: These data extend recent molecular and epidemiologic studies and strongly suggest that HPV-positive oropharyngeal cancers comprise a distinct molecular, clinical, and pathologic disease entity that is likely causally associated with HPV infection and that has a markedly improved prognosis. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Objective: To determine the frequency of hospital complications among survivors of inpatient treatment for congestive heart failure (CHF), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), or diabetes mellitus (DM).Design: Retrospective cohort study.Setting: Nine Veterans Affairs hospitals in the southern United States.Patients: 1,837 men veterans discharged alive following hospitalization for CHF, COPD, or DM between January 1987 and December 1989. This patient population represents a subset of cases gathered to study the process of care in the hospital and subsequent early readmission; thus, veterans who died in the hospital were not included.Measurements: Medical record review to record the occurrence of any of 30 in-hospital complications such as cardiac arrest, nosocomial infections, or delirium (overall agreement between two reviewers = 84%, kappa = 0.37).Results: Complications occurred in 15.7% of the CHF cases, 13.1% of the COPD cases, and 14.8% of the DM cases. Hypoglycemic reactions were the most frequent individual adverse events in the CHF and DM cases (3.6% and 11.4% of the cases, respectively), and theophylline toxicity was most frequent among the COPD cases (4.9%). Patient age, the presence of comorbid diseases, and the Acute Physiology Score (APS) of APACHE II were associated with complication occurrence. For each disease, the patients who had a complication had significantly longer mean hospital stays than did the patients who did not have complications (14.6 to 14.9 days vs 7.2 to 8.2 days, p < 0.01).Conclusions: Complications are frequent among patients discharged alive with CHF, COPD, or DM. The patients who experienced complications were more ill on admission and had longer hospital stays. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

The DNA content in oesophageal carcinoma and in sequential non-tumour mucosa was evaluated in 35 patients with oesophageal carcinoma, to explore the hypotheses that DNA distribution pattern and S-phase fraction can reflect malignant potential and that DNA aneuploidy can provide an early-warning signal of developing cancer. DNA flow cytometry was performed on 129 specimens from the tumours and on 119 specimens from non-tumour mucosa. Control specimens from gastric fundus had normal diploid DNA content and low S-phase fraction. Aneuploidy was found in 94.3% of the carcinoma specimens and intratumoral heterogeneity in 54.3%. Of the non-tumour specimens, 43.7% showed aneuploidy and none multiple aneuploidy. Pattern III distribution was present in 8.6% of the tumour specimens but not in non-tumour mucosa, where the incidence of aneuploidy rose with closeness to the tumour (p < 0.001). S-phase fraction was smaller in non-tumour than in tumour specimens (p < 0.0001). The study indicated that histologically tumour-free oesophageal mucosa may have a high malignant potential in patients with oesophageal carcinoma. The relative instability of such mucosa, with aneuploid cells and low S-phase fraction, may facilitate transition to abnormally proliferating cells in response to environmental signals. Cigarette smoking and alcohol may increase the risk of multicentric cancer development. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Advanced therapies have improved outcomes and also resulted in a growing risk of long‐term adverse health events. This study intends to estimate incidences of adverse health events and examine differences in adverse health events among childhood cancer survivors, and to understand the concerns of mothers after their child has completed cancer treatment. An explanatory sequential mixed‐method was used. A total of 201 paediatric cancer survivors' mothers with mean age 43.6 years were recruited. Of the survivors, 12.4% experienced five or more adverse health events. The incidence of adverse health events of altered body image, fatigue and neurocognitive problems were 31.54%, 14.77% and 12.53% respectively. Among survivors, significant differences in adverse health events of pain, endocrine problems and altered body image issues were identified. Survivors receiving radiotherapy, bone marrow transplants or completing treatment after 6–10 years experienced significantly more adverse health events. Maintaining health was the greatest concern for mothers, and the qualitative reports of their concerns could be categorised: living in uncertainty, and keeping forward‐looking. Childhood brain tumour survivors were identified as experiencing more adverse health events than other survivors. The need for healthcare teams to consider mothers' health concerns was highlighted. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Ageing is related to physical, psychological and social conditions. The aim of this study was to develop a scale that comprehensively assesses these three dimensions to reflect the ageing state of the human body. The study design of this study is a cross-sectional study. The items for the preliminary scale were selected from relevant high-quality literature. The preliminary scale was developed by experts through two rounds of the Delphi method. The analytic hierarchy process was used to determine the weights of the items. Cronbach's α, the test-retest reliability, the content validity index and exploratory factor analysis (EFA) were used to evaluate the validity and reliability of the scale. This study developed the Physiological-Psychological-Social Three-dimensional Human Ageing Scale (PPSHAS), which includes 3 dimensions, 10 components and 51 items. The Cronbach's α of the PPSHAS was 0.930, and the test-retest reliability coefficient was 0.856 (P < 0.001). The scale-level content validity index/universal agreement was 0.82, and the scale-level content validity index/average was 0.98. The EFA yielded 10 components; the total variance explained by these components was 57.491%. This PPSHAS is an easy-to-use instrument for assessing the ageing process among elderly people and has adequate validity and reliability. • A scale for assessing ageing with physical, psychological and social dimensions was developed. • The scale was developed using the Delphi method and analytic hierarchy process. • Reliability and validity of the scale is acceptable. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Aim: To assess the potential of texture analysis (TA) applied in T1 maps and extracellular volume (ECV) obtained using cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) in the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) and hypertensive heart disease (HHD) compared with normal controls (NC). Strain parameters were analysed to compare with final TA models.Materials and Methods: This retrospective study included 66 HCM patients, 39 HHD patients, and 41 NC. Step-wise dimension reduction and feature selection were performed by reproducibility, machine learning, collinearity, and multivariable regression analysis to select the texture features that enable diagnosis of and differentiation between HCM and HHD. Strain parameters were calculated by short-axis and three long-axis cine sequences.Results: Independent features in T1 maps and ECV analysis allowed for the differentiation between patients (HCM and HHD) and NC. Of the best-calculated model, the areas under the receiver operating curve (AUCs) were as follows: 0.969 for T1 map and 0.964 for ECV. To distinguish HCM from HHD, two independent features were screened out for both T1 and ECV maps. The AUCs were as follows: 0.793 for T1 map and 0.894 for ECV. Radial, circumferential, and longitudinal strain parameters could differentiate patients from NC, but only longitudinal strain parameters was significantly different between HCM and HHD.Conclusions: Texture analysis of T1 maps and ECV shows high accuracy in differentiating hypertrophic myocardium from NC, and HCM from HHD. Strain parameters are able to demonstrate the difference between patients and NC, but were less impressive in differentiating HCM and HHD. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]